Two situations:
A person likes to masturbate to videos where the person after beating and swearing a specifically Jewish girls, rapes them. The more real the video, better.
A person likes to see video of people beating and swearing Jews. The more real the video, better.
In both cases the persons in question show no prejudice against the Jews in their normal lives. I want to know the moral and/or ethical questions of both cases. Are they equivalent? Two friend of mine (a woman and a man, both Jews) were convinced that the first case was ok, but not the second case. If it's worth something, the woman in question my female friend have sadomasochism fetish. I found their opinion strange, since the first case there is more violence than in the second.
[–]Skolanthropy 2 points3 points4 points ago
[–]Crabski 1 point2 points3 points ago*
[–]Shaper_pmp 1 point2 points3 points ago
[–]celacanto[S] 1 point2 points3 points ago
[–]underground_man-baby 0 points1 point2 points ago
[–]jcinterrante -1 points0 points1 point ago
[–]KaiusSauersIuvenis -1 points0 points1 point ago